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Klavier Posted 21 years ago
Grammar

None - no one

Hello.
Is there any difference between none and no one?
  

Top answer

Hello Latin none vs no one When 'none' and 'no one' are not followed by 'of', they mean 'nobody' . The differences are: (1) 'none' is more formal than 'no one' or 'nobody', (2) 'none' is usually treated as a plural noun, while 'no one' is always a singular noun. (o) None know(s) when the terrorism stops in Iraq.

  • Hello Latin none vs no one When 'none' and 'no one' are not followed by 'of', they mean 'nobody' .
  • The differences are: (1) 'none' is more formal than 'no one' or 'nobody', (2) 'none' is usually treated as a plural noun, while 'no one' is always a singular noun.
  • (o) None know(s) when the terrorism stops in Iraq.
  • (o) No one knows when the terrorism stops in Iraq.
  • (o) Nobody knows when the terrorism stops in Iraq.
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21 Answers
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Hello Latin

none vs no one

When 'none' and 'no one' are not followed by 'of', they mean 'nobody' . The differences are: (1) 'none' is more formal than 'no one' or 'nobody', (2) 'none' is usually treated as a plural noun, while 'no one' is always a singular noun.



  • (o) None know
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Hi Paco,

Can you elaborate your comment: When 'none' and 'no one' are not followed by 'of', they mean 'nobody'?

It seems you must be including cases where 'of' is implied, if it's not directly stated, such as: Most of the boxes were less than half-full; none were totally empty.
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DavkettMost of the boxes were less than half-full; none were totally empty.
Hello Davkett

I see. I forgot that usage for 'none'. Thank you very much for correcting me.

paco
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I didn't think of it so much as a correction, Paco, as much as an extended meaning --what I thought was probably in line with your thinking.
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"none" can apply to people or things.
"no one" can only apply to people.

CJ
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According to CJ, this Paco's example is not correct?


  • (o) No one of the boxes is empty.
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Hello

I'll say I was not wrong!. CJ said "no one" always means "nobody" when it stands alone (without being followed by "of ~").



  • Now in no one of the seven apartments was there any lamp or candelabrum [The Fall of the House of Usher by Poe, E. A.,]



  • N
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Latin,

Personally, and therefore from the point of view of American English, I regard that statement as unusual in that it is so highly emphatic to my ear, unusual almost to the point of ungrammaticality in present-day American English.

No one of the boxes is empty.

The more or less "unmarked form" of that thought is:

Not one of the boxes is e
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Hello CJ

Actually I took "No one of the boxes is empty" from my E-J dictionary. The English sentences in the dictionary are sensored by Lawrence Schourup, who I believe is of German origin but educated in the United States.

I found two sentences online. I think they were written or spoken by contemporary Americans.

  • In no one of the three cases have I bee
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Paco,

Curious. It works when a specific number is mentioned from which the one is drawn.
"In no one of the three ..."
"No one of the three ..."

Or is it simply the presence of the prepositional phrase after "one"?

1. "In no one case have I been mistaken" sounds strange to me, as does 2. "No one branch of the U.S. government ...", altho

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