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Guzhao67 Posted 15 years ago
Grammar
Non finite verbs
hi: in the sentence:"they demand that he be present at the meeting", does the verb "be" function as non finite verb, or not? again, in the sentence:"he is writing a letter", can we treat the verb form "writing" as the usage of non finite verb? in my opinion, they both are non finite verb forms, but i'm not sure. my argument is they don't change their forms in accordance with time and subject. what's your opinion?
thank you very much
thank you very much
Top answer
These are not non-finite verbs. ", "be" is the subjunctive third person singular present form of the verb. This verb has been inflected, and so it cannot be a non-finite verb.
- These are not non-finite verbs.
- ", "be" is the subjunctive third person singular present form of the verb.
- This verb has been inflected, and so it cannot be a non-finite verb.
- ", the verb form, "is writing," is the third person present progressive form of the verb.
- This verb too has been inflected, and so it cannot be a non-finite verb.
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4 Answers
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These are not non-finite verbs. In the sentence, "They demand that he be present at the meeting.", "be" is the subjunctive third person singular present form of the verb. This verb has been inflected, and so it cannot be a non-finite verb.
In the sentence, "He is writing a letter.", the verb form, "is writing," is the third person present progressive form of the verb. This verb too has
In the sentence, "He is writing a letter.", the verb form, "is writing," is the third person present progressive form of the verb. This verb too has
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Hi,
In your phrases both "be" and "writing" are non-finite forms of the verb. There are three non-finite forms of the verb: the Infinitive, the Gerund and the Participle (or the Infinitive, the ing-form and the Past Participle). Hence, "be" is the Infinitive without "to" and "writing" is the Participle I (or ing-form).
In your phrases both "be" and "writing" are non-finite forms of the verb. There are three non-finite forms of the verb: the Infinitive, the Gerund and the Participle (or the Infinitive, the ing-form and the Past Participle). Hence, "be" is the Infinitive without "to" and "writing" is the Participle I (or ing-form).
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in the sentence:"they demand that he be present at the meeting", does the verb "be" function as non finite verb, or not?
Not.
You've got a good argument, but that construction is considered finite. It seems to me that the use of the complementizer that (even if it were implied) and the use of nominative case he is what makes it
Not.
You've got a good argument, but that construction is considered finite. It seems to me that the use of the complementizer that (even if it were implied) and the use of nominative case he is what makes it
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<<<<<<"they demand that he be present at the meeting".>>>>>>>>>
This is a subjunctive sentence. If you are not clear about the rules, you should study it. Here is anecerpt:
"Command Verbs"
This is a subjunctive sentence. If you are not clear about the rules, you should study it. Here is anecerpt:
"Command Verbs"
| INFINITIVE / THAT |
|---|
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