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English 1b3 Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Non-Finite Clause

Non-finite clauses have the same tense as the finite verb in the main clause.

Since the beginning, the company has grown rapidly, expanding into the U.K.

This would mean that 'expanding' would be 'has expanded', correct?

But it just seems to me that it more means this:

Since the beginning, the company has grown rapidly, and is expanding into the U.K.

Thanks
  

Top answer

English 1b3 Non-finite clauses have the same tense as the finite verb in the main clause. Only "sort of". Non-finite by definition means having no tense.

  • English 1b3 Non-finite clauses have the same tense as the finite verb in the main clause.
  • Only "sort of".
  • Non-finite by definition means having no tense.
  • These clauses more or less take their cue from the main clause, but semantics should also be considered.
  • has been expanding is another possibility for your example.
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17 Answers
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English 1b3Non-finite clauses have the same tense as the finite verb in the main clause.
Only "sort of". Non-finite by definition means having no tense. These clauses more or less take their cue from the main clause, but semantics should also be considered.

has been expanding is another possibility for your example.

CJ
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CalifJimbut semantics should also be considered

Thank you.

So we have to consider semantics here then, right? That is, it is a little ambiguous, so we should use 'having been a Pilot if he no longer is a Pilot?

Being a Pilot, I travelled the world a lot.
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English 1b3so we should use 'having been a Pilot if he no longer is a Pilot?

Being a Pilot, I travelled the world a lot.
I don't believe it's a requirement, but I would use "having been" under those conditions; yes.

CJ
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Thanks, CJ. Most helpful to know.

I have an unrelated question that I hope you can answer for me. I won't start a new thread, as I already have done so. I remember you telling me a while ago that we don't use the simple present for normal verbs when we want to express the action happening now. You said we use the progressive tense. Can you explain, please, why the simple present seems to

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English 1b3Can you explain, please, why the simple present seems to express an action here then?
As an isolated sentence, it's wrong. It should be:

Before the decade was over, David sent Mike's discovery over to researchers ... for testing.

Maybe you found this in the context of a longer story, and the author is just try
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CalifJimMaybe you found this in the context of a longer story, and the author is just trying to make the story more exciting by substituting present tense for past tense. This comes under the category of style rather than grammar, in my opinion

Thank you so very much. Actually, the original was from a documentary, and it used the present perfect.
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English 1b3So is the present perfect correct, while the present simple is only correct if it is referring to a past event (the historic present)?

Before the decade is over, David has sent Mike's discovery over to researchers for testing
Everything is "front-shifted" when you use
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Great, I've got it now.

Botht versions (the present perfect and present simple) are examples of using the Historic present (that is front-shifting as you called it).

What would be the difference in meaning between 'has sent' and sends' in this case? Different meaning or just the perfect aspect is making the time sequence clearer?
CalifJimYou're making thi
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English 1b3What would be the difference in meaning between 'has sent' and sends' in this case?
The difference is the same as the difference between the ("unfrontshifted") originals had sent and sent. And yes, it seems to me that the perfect aspect makes the time sequence clearer.
English 1b3But it can be can't it, say, in
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CalifJimThe difference is the same as the difference between the ("unfrontshifted") originals had sent and sent.

Thanks!

But there is no difference between the originals had sent and sent, is there? One just states more clearly that the sending happens before the decade is over.

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