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Norwolf Posted 14 years ago
Grammar
No use to do?
It was no use to write letters, to go to meetings.
That is taken from COCA. But what I have learnt is there/it no use doing.
Could you teachers please tell me whether the strange sentence is natural to your ear?
Thank you very much.
That is taken from COCA. But what I have learnt is there/it no use doing.
Could you teachers please tell me whether the strange sentence is natural to your ear?
Thank you very much.
Top answer
Both forms are in common use and synonymous. I am not sure whether all verbs can assume both forms, though.
- Both forms are in common use and synonymous.
- I am not sure whether all verbs can assume both forms, though.
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3 Answers
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Both forms are in common use and synonymous. I am not sure whether all verbs can assume both forms, though.
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Many thanks, MM. Nice to see you.
Can we replace it with there meaning the same thing, please?
Another one: I am assuming that we can't say there's no use in to do but there's no use in doing. Is that true?
Still, can we say it is no point doing?
Can we replace it with there meaning the same thing, please?
Another one: I am assuming that we can't say there's no use in to do but there's no use in doing. Is that true?
Still, can we say it is no point doing?
00
You can replace 'it' with 'there' but you cannot use (X) 'in to do'.
'No point' sounds much better with 'there'; I don't think 'it' can work with that.
'No point' sounds much better with 'there'; I don't think 'it' can work with that.
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