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Tamara Grobschmidt Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

No sooner had he arrived...

How do you explain the reverse Subject Verb position of this sentence?

"No sooner had he arrived than she left the party."
  

Top answer

I believe that the explanation (this one is difficult to explain) for this is that certain constructions like this - for example: "No sooner had X arrived/sat down/gotten up/etc. " or "No sooner was X settled in/rested/etc. " or "No sooner did X arrive/settle in/etc.

  • I believe that the explanation (this one is difficult to explain) for this is that certain constructions like this - for example: "No sooner had X arrived/sat down/gotten up/etc.
  • " or "No sooner was X settled in/rested/etc.
  • " or "No sooner did X arrive/settle in/etc.
  • " - are idiomatic, and the rather unusual reversed verb is characteristic of this idiom.
  • , Y - perhaps deliberately, and because of X's action - did something.
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2 Answers
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I believe that the explanation (this one is difficult to explain) for this is that certain constructions like this - for example: "No sooner had X arrived/sat down/gotten up/etc. than..." or "No sooner was X settled in/rested/etc. than..." or "No sooner did X arrive/settle in/etc. than..." - are idiomatic, and the rather unusual reversed verb is characteristic of this idiom. This idiom means tha
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Tamara Grobschmidt"No sooner had he arrived than she left the party."
When a negative or restrictive word or phrase such as no sooner, never, seldom, only, nor, hardly, neither, not until, rarely, scarcely is placed in initial position for emphasis, inversion normally occurs in the main clause. Except for ne

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