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Tenjing Posted 12 years ago
Grammar

No sooner

He had no sooner eaten rice the he began to vomit. Vs. No sooner had he eaten rice than he began to vomit. Do both of the mean the same? What does the sentence mean? I really have no idea what it means. If they both are the same, which one is more common in English? Please help.
  

Top answer

tenjing He had no sooner eaten rice than he began to vomit. Vs. No sooner had he eaten rice than he began to vomit.

— CalifJim

  • tenjing He had no sooner eaten rice than he began to vomit.
  • Vs.
  • No sooner had he eaten rice than he began to vomit.
  • Do both of the m mean the same?
  • Yes, they have the same meaning.
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1 Answers
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tenjing He had no sooner eaten rice than he began to vomit. Vs. No sooner had he eaten rice than he began to vomit. Do both of them mean the same?
Yes, they have the same meaning. The second form (underlined above) is heard much more often.

This is the meaning:

A
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