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Lcchang Posted 12 years ago
Grammar

no more than/ not more than

1. I am not more attractive than John.
2. I am no more attractive than John.

It is easy to understand sentence 1, which means John is more attractive than I. However, some grammar book says sentence 2 means both I and John are not attractive. I just don't get it. Can someone help me to figure this out?
  

Top answer

Probably it is easiest to learn the pattern of (2) as a set pattern. Often it is used to imply, as you say, that neither thing has the stated property. "He is no more a writer than she is" -- implies that neither is much good at writing "This is no better than guessing" -- implies that "this" and guessing are both unsatisfactory methods

— GPY

  • Probably it is easiest to learn the pattern of (2) as a set pattern.
  • Often it is used to imply, as you say, that neither thing has the stated property.
  • "He is no more a writer than she is" -- implies that neither is much good at writing "This is no better than guessing" -- implies that "this" and guessing are both unsatisfactory methods
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2 Answers
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Probably it is easiest to learn the pattern of (2) as a set pattern. Often it is used to imply, as you say, that neither thing has the stated property.

"He is no more a writer than she is" -- implies that neither is much good at writing
"This is no better than guessing" -- implies that "this" and guessing are both unsatisfactory methods
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Lcchang1. I am not more attractive than John.2. I am no more attractive than John.
The term that comes after "than" is 'the standard of comparison'.

The phrasing in 1 is used no matter what degree the standard of comparison possesses of the quality in question. It is an objective statement of fact. So both of these work just fine:

John i
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