0
Persian Learner Posted 9 years ago
Grammar

No more than

Hi.

1) A woman would no more let her business fail than she would let someone kill her child.

2) A woman would no more let someone kill her child than she would let her business fail.

What's the difference in meaning between the above sentences?

To me,

#1 implies that failing a woman's business is like killing her child, but her child is somehow more important,

and

2# implies that killing a woman's child is like failing her business, but her business is somehow more important.

  

Top answer

I can imagine someone writing the first, but not the second. Which one did you find?

  • I can imagine someone writing the first, but not the second.
  • Which one did you find?
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

2 Answers
0

I can imagine someone writing the first, but not the second.

Which one did you find?

0

To me , it seems that the first one means the woman would not let her business fail more than let someone kill her child i.e. she would rather let someone kill her child than letting the business fail. So the second implies the opposite.

If I say - I do more singing than dancing. This is in negative- I do not/no do more dancing than do singing. However, it all just seems to be as I look

Related Questions