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Glee Posted 21 years ago
Grammar

no more rich or no richer than?

Hello, there. Please help me with this question:

In the case of "no more...than," does the comparative form of monosyllabic adjectives no longer apply?

John is no RICHER than I.

= John is no MORE RICH than I.

= John is as poor as I.

I've googled and found that both forms exist. That must mean both are acceptable, right?

Help appreciated in advance!
  

Top answer

" The above is sometimes used in informal speech, but... I don't think you should make a habit of using it. It sounds awkward and, dare I say, somewhat uneducated...

  • " The above is sometimes used in informal speech, but...
  • I don't think you should make a habit of using it.
  • It sounds awkward and, dare I say, somewhat uneducated...
  • Just my opinion.
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8 Answers
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"John is no MORE RICH than I."

The above is sometimes used in informal speech, but... I don't think you should make a habit of using it. It sounds awkward and, dare I say, somewhat uneducated...

Just my opinion.
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No more..than has its own meaning not related to the other options.

Take no more than three sweets or Take not more than three sweets mean the same thing. However, 'no more than' can be used in a perjorative/disbelieving sense as well. It is a way of expressing disbelief in something rather than a way of expressing a comparison.

'She is not more beautiful than her sister' means t
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Hello,

I've noticed that "no more...than" does apply to situations that have nothing to do with comparative adjectives or adverbs. For example,

"I no more like tea than you do."= Neither you nore I like tea.

"He is no more a suitable candidate than Tom."= Neither Tom nor he is a suitable candidate.

My question is, what's the difference between "no madder than" a
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Hello,

I've noticed that "no more...than" does apply to situations that have nothing to do with comparative adjectives or adverbs. For example,

"I no more like tea than you do."= Neither you nor I like tea.

"He is no more a suitable candidate than Tom."= Neither Tom nor he is a suitable candidate.

My question is, what's the difference between "no madder than" an
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I think that would be the same. If someone is no more mad than I am, then neither of us is mad.

But of course, in the context of a 16th century play it may be different as language use changes.
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I see. So "no richer than" would be more grammatically acceptable than "no more rich than."

Thank you, Erin Zale and Nona the Brit.
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I believe the original form of "You are no more rich than I am" was "You are not rich, no more(=neither) am I".

paco
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John isn't RICHER than I.- correct!

= John is no MORE RICH than I.- it is wrong to say it!

= John is as poor as I am. - correct!!

Hadas

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