0
Laborious Posted 13 years ago
Grammar
no longer.../ any more.../ any longer... (what's the different)
Hi teachers,
In the following groups of sentences, what would be the difference among 'no longer', 'any more' and 'any longer' if there were any?
(I)
A: She is no longer in a relation with him.
B: She isn't in a relation with him any more.
C: She isn't in a relation with him any longer.
(II)
A: I no longer talk to her.
B: I don't talk to her any more.
C: I don't talk to her any longer.
Teachers, Do these words always give the same meanings? Could you please help me by telling me when I should use one and avoid the others?
Thank you.
In the following groups of sentences, what would be the difference among 'no longer', 'any more' and 'any longer' if there were any?
(I)
A: She is no longer in a relation with him.
B: She isn't in a relation with him any more.
C: She isn't in a relation with him any longer.
(II)
A: I no longer talk to her.
B: I don't talk to her any more.
C: I don't talk to her any longer.
Teachers, Do these words always give the same meanings? Could you please help me by telling me when I should use one and avoid the others?
Thank you.
Top answer
"no longer" is a bit more formal. It also depends on where you place the words. By placing "him" at the end of the sentence you give the statement more weight.
- "no longer" is a bit more formal.
- It also depends on where you place the words.
- By placing "him" at the end of the sentence you give the statement more weight.
- If you repeat it a few times "any more" is a bit softer in tone.
- But in my opinion "anymore" and "any longer" can both be used in the same way.
Get the Weekly English Kit 📬
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
6 Answers
0
"no longer" is a bit more formal. It also depends on where you place the words. By placing "him" at the end of the sentence you give the statement more weight.
If you repeat it a few times "any more" is a bit softer in tone. But in my opinion "anymore" and "any longer" can both be used in the same way.
"Anymore" and "any longer" come at the end of a sentence.
"No longer" can be pl
If you repeat it a few times "any more" is a bit softer in tone. But in my opinion "anymore" and "any longer" can both be used in the same way.
"Anymore" and "any longer" come at the end of a sentence.
"No longer" can be pl
00
Thank you very much for your reply!
So, the sentence structures that 'any more' and 'any longer' follow are same. I mean we can use 'any more, and any longer' when the auxiliary verbs are in negatives, as in my examples (I) - B and C & (II) - B and C, but we can't use 'no longer' this way. Am I right about what I'm saying, teachers?
If we talk about interrogative sentences, where
So, the sentence structures that 'any more' and 'any longer' follow are same. I mean we can use 'any more, and any longer' when the auxiliary verbs are in negatives, as in my examples (I) - B and C & (II) - B and C, but we can't use 'no longer' this way. Am I right about what I'm saying, teachers?
If we talk about interrogative sentences, where
00
Correct. You can't use "anymore" and "any longer" the same way you use "no longer".
consider these two sentences: She is with him no longer.
She isn't with him no longer.
The first example although grammatically correct, was used in old English. I assure you no native speaks like this, unless they are in a theatrical play!
The s
consider these two sentences: She is with him no longer.
She isn't with him no longer.
The first example although grammatically correct, was used in old English. I assure you no native speaks like this, unless they are in a theatrical play!
The s
00
Great! Glad to learn something from you.
I notice that in 'A-1' and 'A-2', the auxiliary verbs 'do' and 'are' aren't in negative forms. Also, If I talk about the position of 'no longer', it does sound better in the middle of a sentence.
On the contrary, in 'B-1' and 'B-2', the auxiliary verbs 'do' and 'are' are in negative forms. Also, they(anymore and any longer) wouldn't sound
I notice that in 'A-1' and 'A-2', the auxiliary verbs 'do' and 'are' aren't in negative forms. Also, If I talk about the position of 'no longer', it does sound better in the middle of a sentence.
On the contrary, in 'B-1' and 'B-2', the auxiliary verbs 'do' and 'are' are in negative forms. Also, they(anymore and any longer) wouldn't sound
00
You're very welcome!
I like how you noticed my error with A1 and B1, while it should've been A1 and A2.
Good eye!!
Don't mind at all!
Just a suggestion: Although grammatically correct,"Glad to learn something from you" sounds a bit unnatural,
try: "Glad to have learned something from you"...Sounds more like a native would say it!
...and thank you f
I like how you noticed my error with A1 and B1, while it should've been A1 and A2.
Good eye!!
Don't mind at all!
Just a suggestion: Although grammatically correct,"Glad to learn something from you" sounds a bit unnatural,
try: "Glad to have learned something from you"...Sounds more like a native would say it!
...and thank you f
00
LaboriousIn the following groups of sentences, what would be the difference among 'no longer', 'any more' and 'any longer' if there were any?I see none. I use them interchangeably.
'Is no' is a more formal composition than 'isn't any'—this is true in any such pairing: I want no more milk / I don't want any more milk, etc.
La
0
Related Questions