0
Yunus Posted 20 years ago
Grammar

neither or none

I have a question again written below.

Julio has got two old bicycles............ of them is in good condition.

a) Neither b) None c) Both d) Either

I have chosen b. I think there is a slim difference between neither and none, but i suppose so that when we use none after we don't use any verb but when we use neither after we need a verb. Is my thought true or how?
  

Top answer

Neither applies when there are two options - 2 bikes = neither. You also either need to make this two sentences or put an 'and' in the middle as below. Another alternative would be to place a semi-colon at this point.

  • Neither applies when there are two options - 2 bikes = neither.
  • You also either need to make this two sentences or put an 'and' in the middle as below.
  • Another alternative would be to place a semi-colon at this point.
  • Think of neither as short for 'not either'.
  • '
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

12 Answers
0
Neither applies when there are two options - 2 bikes = neither. You also either need to make this two sentences or put an 'and' in the middle as below. Another alternative would be to place a semi-colon at this point. Think of neither as short for 'not either'.

If she had had 3 bikes, we would have said 'Julia has got three old bicyles and none of them are in good condition.'
0
yes nona you made my mind up but you confused me about another question.

none of them are in good condition ( you said why are? why not is?)
0
Darn I hoped you weren't going to ask me that!

When you use neither you mean neither this one or that one (and the 'ones' are thought of as singular) so you use 'is'.

with none, you are talking about all of them in one go (plural) so you use 'are'.
0
Excuse me but you meant Darn It, didn't you? (just joke Emotion: wink) i understood totally. Sometimes i can be very
0
Yunusnone of them are in good condition ( why are? why not is?)

When a plural noun or pronoun follows 'none of', the verb could be either plural or singular, depending upon the context and idea involved.

(E-x)

None of my cars are in good conditio
0
In the U.S. we are taught to use the singular after "none of ...".
I know very few people who do so!
Most people use singular or plural in conversation depending on what comes after "none of ...".

None of the meat is spoiled.
None of the students have the right answer.


"Technically correct" (and your best choice in formal writing or on an exam):
0
In that case, it is used singular after none of in usa and it is used plural after none of in england or it depends on what comes after none of?
0
I can't speak for England.

In the U.S.:
In conversation and informal writing: depends what comes after.
On exams or in formal writing: singular.

CJ
0
i have an exam reading and it is written in that five were absolute beginners, but none of us was fluent.

as far as we see that singular is used in sentence written above. I suppose as you said calif on exams or in formal writing singular.

thanks a lot.
0
Yes. If you have an exam question like this:

Five were absolute beginners; none of us ___ fluent.

a) was b) were


you should definitely answer a) was.

Related Questions