Negative with never

Question

Hi teachers,Acording to this question?Who has never studied Spanish?Which option is the correct one?a) Robert has (never studied Spanish).b) Robert hasn't.I know 'a' is correct, but isn't 'b' also correct, if I finish the sentence right there after 'hasn't'?If not, could you tell me why?Thanks in advance

Avangi · Accepted Answer

Thinking SpainWho has never studied Spanish?
Which option is the correct one?
a) Robert has (never studied Spanish).
b) Robert hasn't.

Both responses (a & b) to the question are correct.

Edit. Sorry, I took (a) as "Robert has never studied Spanish."

Only (b) would be used by a native speaker for the suggested meaning.

There's no logical reason that I know of. It's simply not used.

I could make up a "rule" that would describe it, but so could you.

Who is ready? (reply) John isn't. OK

Who hasn't finished? (reply) John. OK

(reply) John has. (means that he has finished)

(reply) John hasn't. OK

Your answer (a) above would be taken to mean that Robert has studied Spanish.

It's natural to effectively contradict the question, but it may not be polite.

(That is, you're understood to be changing the question by your answer.)

Tenacious Learner · Answer

Hi Avangi,

Thanks a lot to your reply.

So when we have 'Who ... never ... ?' The verb in the answer has to be negative, right?

That is if I only use 'the subject + a verb', in the answer.

Because if I say 'Robert has never studied Spanish' then it is possible to use the verb 'has' in affirmative.

Is that so?

TS

Avangi · Answer

Thinking SpainSo when we have 'Who ... never ... ?' The verb in the answer has to be negative, right?

Yes. But you can also answer using only the name, without the verb.
Who didn't get a pencil? (reply) John.

(reply) John didn't.

(reply) John did. Means he did get a pencil!

Thinking SpainBecause if I say 'Robert has never studied Spanish' then it is possible to use the verb 'has' in affirmative.

This is not clear. Is this a question or an answer?

Please give us the exact question and the exact answer you're asking about here.

The devil is in the details.[6]

(I understand that you're trying to generalize, but that can be hazzardous.)

Thanks, - A.

Tenacious Learner · Answer

Hi Avangi,

Thank you. The question is the same one: 'Who has never studied Spanish? Robert has never studied Spanish'. I guess I can use the whole sentence in the answer just to emphasize it.

Best regards

TS

PS I know the angels are here though.[A]

Avangi · Answer

I think I understand what you're saying.

I thought you had been referring to the contraction "hasn't" as a "negative verb" elsewhere in your post, which may be a tad unconventional.

I tend to think of "hasn't" and "has not" as the same grammatical "unit."

Tenacious Learner · Answer

Hi Avangi,

In conclusion, according to this question?

Who has never studied Spanish?

Which option is the correct one?

a) Robert has never studied Spanish.

b) Robert hasn't.

You've said, 'Only (b) would be used by a native speaker for the suggested meaning'.

I tend to think of "hasn't" and "has not" as the same grammatical "unit". Me too.

Thank you very much.

TS

CSnyder · Answer

This thread is a perfect example of why negative interrogatories need to be wiped out.

Avangi · Answer

Thinking Spaina) Robert has (never studied Spanish).
b) Robert hasn't.

This was the source of the original misunderstanding, and at this moment I'm not sure it has been resolved.
How am I to interpret the prentheses? In your last post, they are conspicuously absent.

I originally ignored them and stated that both (a) and (b) were natural responses.

Then I felt I had misunderstood your intention, and that you meant reply (a) to be "Robert has.",

with the meaning "Robert has never studied Spanish." This of course is incorrect.

If the reply is "Robert has," then the meaning will be taken as "Robert has studied Spanish."

If you wish a negative reply, then there must be a negative element added to the positive verb.

You can say "Robert hasn't," or you can say "Robert hasn't studied Spanish."

Another solution which I mentioned earlier would be to omit the verb altogether:

Who has never studied Spanish? (reply) Robert.

Best regards, - A.

Tenacious Learner · Answer

Hi Avangi,

So sorry for my not so clear post.

But you have understood me completely now.

AvangiThen I felt I had misunderstood your intention, and that you meant reply (a) to be "Robert has.",
with the meaning "Robert has never studied Spanish." This of course is incorrect.
If the reply is "Robert has," then the meaning will be taken as "Robert has studied Spanish."

This exactly what I meant. Now it is very, very clear. To say, 'Robert has' implies a positive meaning.

AvangiIf you wish a negative reply, then there must be a negative element added to the positive verb.
You can say "Robert hasn't," or you can say "Robert hasn't studied Spanish."

That's it. No further questions at this point. Clear and concrete.

AvangiAnother solution which I mentioned earlier would be to omit the verb altogether:
Who has never studied Spanish? (reply) Robert.

Thank you for this one.

Best regards from Barcelona

TS

Negative with never

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