What's the difference between negating the verb or the subject?
For example:
I haven't a pencil. I have no pencil.
I've seen that in english you have a lot of structures in which you can sort of negate two ways. (of course not both, because of the grammatically incorrrect although common use of the double negative).
My bet is that it's stronger to negate the subject, like, "I have no pencil" is stronger than "I haven't a pencil" o maybe "I haven't any pencil".
So, basically what are the differences between these two ways of negation?
Top answer
Hello. Both ways of negation are possible. Basically, the difference as you said is emphasis.
— Destination_AGP
Hello.
Both ways of negation are possible.
Basically, the difference as you said is emphasis.
1) I haven't (got) any money 2) I have no money If you want to stress the idea that you can't pay for something, you would use option (2), verb negation.
If you say option (1), you convey the idea of not having money as well, but maybe it's not so important or decisive.
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Both ways of negation are possible. Basically, the difference as you said is emphasis.
1) I haven't (got) any money
2) I have no money
If you want to stress the idea that you can't pay for something, you would use option (2), verb negation. If you say option (1), you convey the idea of not having money as well, but maybe it's not so i
Formality is also involved, with 'I have no money' being rather more formal/written than 'I haven't any money'. For more formality, re-phrase to 'I am temporarily financially embarrassed'.
I'd watch out for such constructions. I saw this in a Radio Shack flyer a few weeks ago: "You've got questions. We've got answers." The negative and affirmative adverbs are often placed within verb phrases:
Without researching (again!-- I am easily confused by fiats), it seems to me that the 'I haven't any money' is a Briticism while the 'I haven't got any money' is an Americanism-- or, I think I have it reversed-- but in any case, neither is less acceptable than the other.
With the 'any', we're into the 'any' for negative/interrogative vs. 'some' for declarative semi-rule; so that the
Yes, without the contraction it would be "You have got questions. We have got answers."
Have is used to form the present perfect indicative forms of verbs. That is, to pair the past participle of the verb with either have or has. Got is the past indicative form of the verb get and, therefore, cannot be paired with have. Gotten is the past participle of the verb got, and can be paired wi