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Kayaker Posted 22 years ago
Grammar

Negation

What's the difference between negating the verb or the subject?

For example:

I haven't a pencil.
I have no pencil.

I've seen that in english you have a lot of structures in which you can sort of negate two ways. (of course not both, because of the grammatically incorrrect although common use of the double negative).

My bet is that it's stronger to negate the subject, like, "I have no pencil" is stronger than "I haven't a pencil" o maybe "I haven't any pencil".

So, basically what are the differences between these two ways of negation?
  

Top answer

Hello. Both ways of negation are possible. Basically, the difference as you said is emphasis.

  • Hello.
  • Both ways of negation are possible.
  • Basically, the difference as you said is emphasis.
  • 1) I haven't (got) any money 2) I have no money If you want to stress the idea that you can't pay for something, you would use option (2), verb negation.
  • If you say option (1), you convey the idea of not having money as well, but maybe it's not so important or decisive.
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10 Answers
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Hello.

Both ways of negation are possible. Basically, the difference as you said is emphasis.

1) I haven't (got) any money

2) I have no money


If you want to stress the idea that you can't pay for something, you would use option (2), verb negation. If you say option (1), you convey the idea of not having money as well, but maybe it's not so i
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Formality is also involved, with 'I have no money' being rather more formal/written than 'I haven't any money'. For more formality, re-phrase to 'I am temporarily financially embarrassed'.
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Technical point: "I" is the subject of those sentences, and you are not negating the subject at all.

The difference is between negating the verb and negating the direct object.
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"I haven't (got) any money.

I'd watch out for such constructions. I saw this in a Radio Shack flyer a few weeks ago: "You've got questions. We've got answers." The negative and affirmative adverbs are often placed within verb phrases:

I will not give you a dollar.

Now remove the negative adverb:

I will give you a dollar.

The sentence still make
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Without researching (again!-- I am easily confused by fiats), it seems to me that the 'I haven't any money' is a Briticism while the 'I haven't got any money' is an Americanism-- or, I think I have it reversed-- but in any case, neither is less acceptable than the other.

With the 'any', we're into the 'any' for negative/interrogative vs. 'some' for declarative semi-rule;
so that the
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Yes, without the contraction it would be "You have got questions. We have got answers."

Have is used to form the present perfect indicative forms of verbs. That is, to pair the past participle of the verb with either have or has. Got is the past indicative form of the verb get and, therefore, cannot be paired with have. Gotten is the past participle of the verb got, and can be paired wi
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For the ordinary, simple "to have":
British: have some ..., haven't any ...
American: have some ..., don't have any ...

For the ordinary, simple "to get".
British principle parts: "get, got, got
American principle parts: "get got, gotten

For the idiom "have got", used as a substitute for ordinary "have" (almost exclusively as a present tense
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Good morning, Jim (get some sleep!). I see.
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It's only a little before 11pm here! The late news is just about to begin!
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Ok Guys.

Thank you all.

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