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0 1. When to use "had" ? Since it serves as a past tense but I don't see it being used when it should like ... "I have played football yesterday" which is a sentence in past tense form but why have instead of had ?02br02br002. We must make the word after "never" past tense ? Eg. I never do that before/I never did that before ? Eg. I pretend like she never left me/I pretend like she never leaves me ? 0-

Mr Wordy · Accepted Answer

01. Well, "had" is the past tense of the verb "have", but I think you're asking specifically about its use as an auxiliary to form the past perfect tense of other verbs:02br
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01i00I played02i00 -- simple past tense02br
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01i00I 01b00have02b00 played02i00 -- present perfect tense02br
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01i00I 01b00had02b00 played02i00 -- past perfect (or pluperfect) tense02br
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00So, even though "have" on its own is present tense, it forms a past tense with other verbs. If you do a Google search for these tense names then you will find tons of information on their uses. See, for example, 01a05000 02a00 (this page describes the past perfect; all the other tenses are linked down the left hand side).02br
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00"I have played football yesterday" isn't right. "have played football" has the general sense of "played football on one or more unspecified occasions in the past", and it doesn't go with "yesterday", which is a specific occasion. Instead you would say "I played football yesterday".02br
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002. "Never" can be used with a variety of different tenses, depending on when the thing in question wasn't/isn't done or didn't/doesn't happen. A couple of examples:02br
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01i00You never 01b00told02b00 me that you loved me02i00 -- means that you didn't tell me in the past, but you might tell me now (or in the future).02br
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01i00You never 01b00tell02b00 me that you love me02i00 -- means that you didn't tell me in the past 01i00and02i00 you don't tell me now. In other words, the absence of telling continues up to and including the present.02br
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00It's not possible to use the present tense with "never before", so "I never 01b00do02b00 that before" is wrong. It should be "I never 01b00did02b00 that before" (or "I have never done that before").0230hrefhttp://www.englishpage.com/verbpage/pastperfect.html

JustForFun · Answer

0 One more question here, I thought after has/have/had you have to make the next word in the past tense ( or whatever form ) .. Like I have played/He has done ... ? Why I saw an example in the website you posted : it has become instead of it has became ? 0-

Mr Wordy · Answer

0After has/have/had you need to use the past participle. In the case of regular verbs, the past participle is the same as the (simple) past tense: 01i00I 01b00play02b02i00; 01i00I 01b00played02b02i00;01i00 I have 01b00played02b02i00. In the case of irregular verbs, it can be different: 01i00I 01b00do02b02i00; 01i00I 01b00did02b02i00; 01i00I have 01b00done02b02i00. 02br
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00By some quirk of the language, the past participle of a few irregular verbs actually has the same form as the present tense: 01i00I 01b00come02b02i00; 01i00I 01b00came02b02i00;01i00 I have 01b00come02b02i00, or 01i00I 01b00become02b02i00;01i00 I 01b00became02b02i00; 01i00I have 01b00become02b02i00. In these cases, you can think of the present tense and the past participle as two different words that just happen to be spelled (and pronounced) the same.0-

JustForFun · Answer

0 So any specific way to remember those special case ? 0-

Mr Wordy · Answer

0Not that I know of. I guess you'll probably find some learning aids kicking around the Internet, but essentially I think you just have to learn the irregular verbs by rote. 02br
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00In some cases, such as "become", "overthrow", "mislead" etc., you only need to learn the root verb ("come", "throw", "lead"), and then the derived verb behaves in the same way.0-

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