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Anonymous Posted 18 years ago
Linguistics Studies

Native-speaker/native language

0Hope ya'll don't mind if I bring attention to this question:02br
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00"If people learn a language at home in childhood, but do not have opportunities to use it later in the wider world of adulthood, does the childhood language still "count" as their native language?"0-
  

Top answer

02br 02br 00More complicated is the situation where a child has two languages in the home [say, English and German] and speaks both equally. 0-

— Feebs11

  • 02br 02br 00More complicated is the situation where a child has two languages in the home [say, English and German] and speaks both equally.
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28 Answers
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0 If a person of [for example] Chinese origin is brought up in England with Chinese as the language used in the home in infancy and childhood, and English as the language learned in school, then Chinese is the native language.02br
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00More complicated is the situation where a child has two languages in the home [say, English and German] and speaks both equally. 0-
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0Could such a person be labeled a native-speaker of both languages?0-
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01cite10Anonymous12cite10 "If people learn a language at home in childhood, but do not have opportunities to use it later in the wider world of adulthood, does the childhood language still "count" as their native language?"12blockquote
10A cousin of mine (father Italian, mother Dutch) was born in the Netherlands and l
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0 Hi,02br
00good example Tanit. Yeah, so she should say she's a native speaker of Dutch, but she doesn't know it, LOL.02br
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00If we consider Tanit's example, I think we should give a different definition of native speaker. I'd say a native speaker of a language is someone who has complete command of that language, like people who've been using it as a fist lan
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01cite10Kooyeen12cite10Those who are truly bilingual don't have a fist language, do they? They have two first languages... maybe.12blockquote
10 It seems to me that I once read somewhere that, according to some "scientific studies", one language always dominates, even in bilinguals. (Don't ask me to cite a refere
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01cite10CalifJim12cite10t seems to me that I once read somewhere that, according to some "scientific studies", one language always dominates, even in bilinguals.12blockquote
10Hmm, yeah, it must be so, unless someone uses both languages the same way, in the same kinds of situations, one language 50% of the time, and the othe
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0<<I'd say a native speaker of a language is someone who has complete command of that language, >>02br
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00But there are many native-speakers who do not have complete command of the language. Just go in any British or American bar and you'll see what I mean. 050010id2
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0If someone was bilingual, I would think their native language would be the one they are able to converse in more fluently and write adequately in. I wouldn't think it was possible to be completely 50% in all areas of communications in both languages. 0-
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0 I have two nieces who are equally fluent in English and German. It is possible. 0-
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0 Yep, it is possible, but I believe you have to use both languages equally, with more or less the same frequency. Otherwise I think you will end up being less fluent in the language you use less, and the language you use the most is likely to affect the accent of the other (example: if I speak English 80% of the time, I'll definitely end up aspirating some consonants in Italian). 0-
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