0
Anonymous Posted 12 years ago
Grammar

my wife and daughters' names vs. my wife's and daughters' names

Hi! I'm wondering this sentence from a book:

"with ... a large, freshly tattooed heart incorporating my wife and daughters' names on one bared shoulder.."

I've understood that when there are two people owning something together, you have the s-genetive only after the latter name. Here then, I think that the wife has her own name and the daughters their own names, and i don't understand why it isn't written: "my wife's and daughters' names"

Can some of you give me an explanation, please?

Thank you very much.
  

Top answer

You are correct. It should be "my wife's and daughters' names".

  • You are correct.
  • It should be "my wife's and daughters' names".
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

4 Answers
0
You are correct. It should be "my wife's and daughters' names".
0
Is there any way that this sentence could also be correct? It's in a study book and I find it hard to believe that they would let something like that in there, if it was totally uncorrect. Are there other opinions?
0
Your book is correct if the women all share the same name. That is unlikely.

This is John and Mary's book. (Both of them own the book)
These are John's and Mary's books. (Some are John's and the others are Mary's)
http://grammar.ccc.commnet.edu/grammar/possessives.htm
0
Ok, thank you. If you both agree on it being incorrect, I guess I have to believe it : ) (I don't think it's possible that the mom and the two or more daughters would have the same name)

Related Questions