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Navitasan Posted 7 years ago
Grammar

Must vs. have to

1) In that country, people have to obey their tyrannical leaders.

2) In that country, people must obey their tyrannical leaders.


Are both acceptable?

Is there a difference is the meanings?

According to some grammar books I have consulted, 'must' implies that the speaker is in favor of the obligation he or she is stating. Thus, '2' would imply that the speaker thinks that the people of the country in question really should obey their tyrannical leaders. Is there really such an implication in '2'?

Gratefully,

Navi

  

Top answer

No, they have the same meaning.

  • No, they have the same meaning.
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1 Answers
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No, they have the same meaning.

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