I’ve seen or met many handsome men but none have affected me the way he has.
According to Word the verbs have and has are problem words, but why? If I change either of them it makes no sense to me.
In written English, "none" takes a singular verb. "... " In conversation, many people use the plural.
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In written English, "none" takes a singular verb.
"... none has ..."
In conversation, many people use the plural.
"... none have ..."
That could be the problem your software is finding.
CJ
chipwbut why?
Because computer grammar checkers are as useful as a rubber crutch.