Like most other philosophers of the Enlightenment, he gave a central place to the glowing idea of reason, but his account of it wasmore qualified, better grounded in empiricism.
Does that mean 1. ... his account of it was more qualified AND better grounded in empiricism 2...... his account of it was more qualified, in other words, better grounded in empiricism 3..... his account of it was more qualified, BECAUSE it was better grounded in empiricism 4.... his account of it was more qualified, or to be more precise, was better grounded in empiricism ?
Many thanks.
Top answer
I read it as meaning (1).
— GPY
I read it as meaning (1).
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