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Anonymous Posted 11 years ago
Linguistics Studies

Moods and modals

If in other languages (hixkaryana) moods and modals are both expressed with clitics, is there a formal difference? Is mood a system akin to speech acts, while modals express attitudes toward the statement rather than a transaction with the hearer? Is the difference purely semantic with no formal difference? If so, what kind of transaction is the subjunctive? "Si hubiera sido..." "If I had been..." simply attaches to a declaritive?
  
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