Mood in grammar

Question

Hi,Mood in English grammar classifies sentences under indicative, imperative, and subjunctive. When modals of probability are used in a sentence in the indicative mood , would the mood still be indicative, though the sentences are be used to express possibility/probability? Thanks.

Cool Breeze · Accepted Answer

nsfs2When modals of probability are used in a sentence in the indicative mood , would the mood still be indicative

If you prefer to call it that, yes. If you prefer another term, it's up to you. Numerous terms have been used to refer to grammatical structures. It's a free-for-all!

Don't ask what my preference is. I never gave any thought to your problem and it doesn't really interest me at all.

CB

CalifJim · Answer

nsfs2When modals of probability are used in a sentence in the indicative mood , would the mood still be indicative, though the sentences are be used to express possibility/probability?

I don't know which modals you're calling "modals of probability", but modals in general can be thought of as indicative forms. For one thing, they don't have any imperative forms, so they can't be that.

The only exception I can think of is that "should" can occur where subjunctives can occur.

I demand that he should be fired. / I demand that he be fired.

In that case I would call "should" subjunctive. I've also heard it called "evaluative should".

There may be another exception or two, but nothing comes to mind. In any case nothing of great importance hinges on your ability to come up with a label like "indicative" or "subjunctive" for modal verbs. Many texts on English barely mention mood at all these days.

CJ

Fivejedjon · Answer

Unless one is discussing theories of grammar, I see little point in worrying about labels such as indicative or subjunctive.

What is important to me as a teacher is how the language works, not what labels one uses.

Mood in grammar

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