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Anonymous Posted 15 years ago
Grammar
Moliken
can a verb be called an antecedent to a plural pronoun/verb construction?
When people have been drinking, they are more likely to speed.
is "have been drinking" able to be referred to correctly as the "antecedent" for the plural they are?
When people have been drinking, they are more likely to speed.
is "have been drinking" able to be referred to correctly as the "antecedent" for the plural they are?
Top answer
Hi, It makes no sense to do so at all. Clive
- Hi, It makes no sense to do so at all.
- Clive
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2 Answers
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Anonymousis "have been drinking" able to be referred to correctly as the "antecedent" for the plural they are?No. Instead, you say that "people" is the antecedent of "they". It follows automatically that the verb is chosen to match "they" ('are' rather than 'is').
CJ
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