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Breez Posted 20 years ago
Grammar
Modifying Clauses
When an modifying clause precedes or goes after a noun, does the modifier have to agree in number with the modified noun?
ie: As a commodity, soft drinks are relatively cheap.
For example in this example, commodity is singular, while soft drinks is plural.
Also, can a modifying clause precede or go after an entire noun phrase? Like this:
The worker of the company, irate and frustrated, quit his job.
It kind of looks like irate and frustrated is modifying company.
ie: As a commodity, soft drinks are relatively cheap.
For example in this example, commodity is singular, while soft drinks is plural.
Also, can a modifying clause precede or go after an entire noun phrase? Like this:
The worker of the company, irate and frustrated, quit his job.
It kind of looks like irate and frustrated is modifying company.
Top answer
As a commodity, soft drinks are relatively cheap. OK. The worker of the company, irate and frustrated, quit his job.
- As a commodity, soft drinks are relatively cheap.
- OK.
- The worker of the company, irate and frustrated, quit his job.
- It's OK, but you're right, there's the possibility of confusion.
- Irate and frustrated, the worker of the company quit his job.
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6 Answers
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As a commodity, soft drinks are relatively cheap. OK.
The worker of the company, irate and frustrated, quit his job. It's OK, but you're right, there's the possibility of confusion.
Irate and frustrated, the worker of the company quit his job. Seems better to me.
The
The worker of the company, irate and frustrated, quit his job. It's OK, but you're right, there's the possibility of confusion.
Irate and frustrated, the worker of the company quit his job. Seems better to me.
The
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I was just trying to extend the noun phrase in the example to setup for my question on the modifiers. So is it grammatically ambiguous and hence incorrect to write a modifier in that way?
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When an modifying clause precedes or goes after a noun, does the modifier have to agree in number with the modified noun? No. Adjectives in English have no plural forms.
ie: As a commodity, soft drinks are relatively cheap.
For example in this example, commodity is singular, while soft drinks is plural.
Also, can a modifying clause p
ie: As a commodity, soft drinks are relatively cheap.
For example in this example, commodity is singular, while soft drinks is plural.
Also, can a modifying clause p
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But say that was on an English test or the an entrance exam. Would you pick irate and frustrated as a misplaced modifier?
Also, I guess this following sentence would be perfectly fine?
Jack and Jim, as the leader of the club, were very good.
or
Lions and cheetahs, as the main predator of the savannah, are deadly.
Also, I guess this following sentence would be perfectly fine?
Jack and Jim, as the leader of the club, were very good.
or
Lions and cheetahs, as the main predator of the savannah, are deadly.
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BreezAlso, I guess this following sentence would be perfectly fine?IMO:
Jack and Jim, as the leader of the club, were very good.
or
Lions and cheetahs, as the main predator of the savannah, are deadly.
Jack and Jim, as the leaders of the club, were very good.
Lions and cheetahs,
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So basically if the subject is conjugated by and then using a singular adjective clause is bad?
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