0
Pokh Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

Modifier

One pervasive theory explains the introduction of breakfast cereals in the early 1900s as a result of the growing number of automobiles, which led to a decline in horse ownership and a subsequent grain glut; by persuading people to eat what had previously been horse feed, market equilibrium was restored.
Guys,
What do you think about the sentence above... Is it prep phrase by persuading people to eat what had previously been horse feed used correctly... My understanding is that prep phrase at the beginning of the sentence separated by comma acts adjectival modifier ... and thus above sentence modifies market equilibrium...and makes sentence nonsensical ? However I also noticed that if by persuading people to eat what had previously been horse feed is assumed to be adverbial modifier the sentence sounds correct ? Can it be a adverbial modifier..

Please clarify

Thanks
  

Top answer

It is adverbial in nature. " Market equilibrium was restored. How was that done?

— CalifJim

  • It is adverbial in nature.
  • " Market equilibrium was restored.
  • How was that done?
  • By persuading people ...
  • ) CJ
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

5 Answers
0
It is adverbial in nature. It answers the question "How?"

Market equilibrium was restored.

How was that done?

By persuading people ...

(It's correct.)

CJ
0
0
CalifJimIt is adverbial in nature. It answers the question "How?"Market equilibrium was restored.How was that done?By persuading people ...(It's correct.)CJ
CJ..thanks for your reply..
one more question...

Is By redundant in this sentence?....
-by- persuading people ... also acts as an adverbial modifier...and answers "How"?
0
0
pokhone more question...

Is By redundant in this sentence?..
I would say no. The use of by emphasizes the idea that it was by means of persuading ... that equilibrium was restored.

Without by the relationship of the persuasion to the equilibrium is left more vague. In fact, without by, you might even say
0
0
CJ....why is had previously been correct? Is previously not redundant....
0
0
pokhIs previously not redundant.
You might say that, but it's just a common way of emphasizing the time relationship and connecting one clause to another.

CJ
0

Related Questions