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Justafreak Posted 17 years ago
Grammar

Modality and tense

I am working on some assignments about tense, modality, voice and aspect. But even though I got almost everything right, of course three clauses had to confuse me.

The first:

"I may do it" According to my book this is tenseless, why is that? Is this root or epistemic?

Same with "I might do it".. It`s tenseless. What about the modality in this one?

And the last one:

"They must have lost". Why isn`t this epistemic? ( THe speaker thinks it is possible that X is the case) Is the meaning more "possibility?"
  

Top answer

Good evening, Agatha, let's try to sort it out. According to authoritative sources, modal verbs have abnormal time reference , which means that not only the present forms, but the past forms of the modals can be used to refer to present and future time (often hypothetically): I think he might fly to Japan next May. <future, though might is historically considered the past of may > There are pairs of auxiliaries which superficially have tense distinctions: can/could, may/might, will/would, shall/should, but 'past tense' forms can only to limited extend be usefully classified as such from the point of view of their meaning (as was shown above).

  • Good evening, Agatha, let's try to sort it out.
  • According to authoritative sources, modal verbs have abnormal time reference , which means that not only the present forms, but the past forms of the modals can be used to refer to present and future time (often hypothetically): I think he might fly to Japan next May.
  • <future, though might is historically considered the past of may > There are pairs of auxiliaries which superficially have tense distinctions: can/could, may/might, will/would, shall/should, but 'past tense' forms can only to limited extend be usefully classified as such from the point of view of their meaning (as was shown above).
  • Therefore, the definition in your grammar book about tenseless modals in part reflects reality.
  • (to be continued)
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2 Answers
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Good evening, Agatha,

let's try to sort it out. According to authoritative sources, modal verbs have abnormal time reference, which means that not only the present forms, but the past forms of the modals can be used to refer to present and future time (often hypothetically):

I think he might fly to Japan next May. <future, though might is historically con
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(continued)
Justafreak"I may do it" According to my book this is tenseless, why is that? Is this root or epistemic?
- now that we have dealt with the 'tenselessness' of modals, let's consider other issues. The question of root and epistemic modality is a neat area. I suggest the we begin with the definition of this type of modality. One tells us that

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