Good evening, Agatha, let's try to sort it out. According to authoritative sources, modal verbs have abnormal time reference , which means that not only the present forms, but the past forms of the modals can be used to refer to present and future time (often hypothetically): I think he might fly to Japan next May. <future, though might is historically considered the past of may > There are pairs of auxiliaries which superficially have tense distinctions: can/could, may/might, will/would, shall/should, but 'past tense' forms can only to limited extend be usefully classified as such from the point of view of their meaning (as was shown above).
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Justafreak"I may do it" According to my book this is tenseless, why is that? Is this root or epistemic?- now that we have dealt with the 'tenselessness' of modals, let's consider other issues. The question of root and epistemic modality is a neat area. I suggest the we begin with the definition of this type of modality. One tells us that