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Marold Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

Modal verbs in past

What is the difference between these pairs of sentences:

(1) "I could do it".

(2) "I could have done it".

(a) "I couldn't have gone there."

(b) "I can't have gone there."

Thank you very much.
  

Top answer

". You are supposed to say " Yes, I can", or "no I can't". But with "could", you are showing little confidence, and grammatically incorrect.

— Dimsumexpress

  • ".
  • You are supposed to say " Yes, I can", or "no I can't".
  • But with "could", you are showing little confidence, and grammatically incorrect.
  • (2) "I could have done it".
  • But you didn't- This is a counter-factual / conditional statement.
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2 Answers
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MaroldWhat is the difference between these pairs of sentences:

(1) "I could do it".--- Scenarios: You are answering someone's question: 'Can you do it?". You are supposed to say " Yes, I can", or "no I can't". But with "could", you are showing little confidence, and grammatically incorrect.
(2) "I could have done it". But
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The modal auxiliaries have lots of meanings and uses. Without context, it's often impossible to give a definitive reply. What almost always applies is that the present infinitive refers to the present time or the future and the perfect infinitive refers to the past.

Can't + perfect infinitive (can't have gone) very often denotes conclusion. Anyone who says I can't
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