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Marold Posted 14 years ago
Grammar

Modal verbs

I heard my friend say this:

(1)"I should have been sleeping 3 hours now" Is it even grammatically correct and what is actually the meaning of this sentence? - It rather seems to me as a meaningless sentence.

(2)"I should have slept 10 hours" - It would have been good to sleep 10 hours, bu I did not and I regret it now?

(3)"I should have been sleeping 10 hours" - Does this refer to present or do we only speak about the past in this case?

What are the differences between these two sentences?

(4)"I should sleep 10 hours"- Does this sentence simply suggest that it would be good to sleep 10 hours?

Thank you very much in advance.
  

Top answer

(1) "I should have been sleeping 3 hours now" I think your friend is saying, "I should have been in bed three hours ago". You're right. It's a little strange.

  • (1) "I should have been sleeping 3 hours now" I think your friend is saying, "I should have been in bed three hours ago".
  • You're right.
  • It's a little strange.
  • (2)"I should have slept 10 hours" - It would have been good to sleep 10 hours, but I did not and I regret it now?
  • Yes, though 'regret' may be putting it too strongly.
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2 Answers
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(1) "I should have been sleeping 3 hours now"

I think your friend is saying, "I should have been in bed three hours ago". You're right. It's a little strange.

(2)"I should have slept 10 hours" - It would have been good to sleep 10 hours, but I did not and I regret it now?

Yes, though 'regret' may be putti
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Thank you so much again...you have always helped me a lot! Emotion: smile

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