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NL888 Posted 12 years ago
Grammar

Mimesis is subverted? What? It sounds inconsistent

Because mimicry shares the same meaning with mimesis.
First, you say "imitating the coloniser to elevate above the jungle status", and then you say the mimesis is subverted? I failed to see the consistency within.

Context:

Colonial Mimicry and Lawrence's Arab Masquerade

In his Black Skin, White Masks, Frantz Fanon observes, "Every colonized people... finds itself face to face with the language of the civilized nation; this is with the culture of the mother country. The colonized is elevated above his jungle status in proportion to his adoption of the mother country's cultural standards. He becomes whiter as he renounces his blackness." For Fanon, one of the primary ways in which colonialism operates is through instilling in the colonised subject the desire to imitate his coloniser. Homi Bhabha further complicates this theoretical paradigm by introducing the notion of "mimicry', a category which includes a whole range of parodic strategies whereby mimesis is subverted and its power relations redefined.
  

Top answer

This is my guess at the meaning. It appears that Homi Bhabha has advised using the term "mimicry" to mean making fun of the colonists by imitating them. Thus.

  • This is my guess at the meaning.
  • It appears that Homi Bhabha has advised using the term "mimicry" to mean making fun of the colonists by imitating them.
  • Thus.
  • "mimesis" is subverted.
  • In other words, the usual reason for imitating the colonists is to achieve a higher social rank in their system, but in Bhabha's "mimicry", this is reversed.
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1 Answers
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This is my guess at the meaning.

It appears that Homi Bhabha has advised using the term "mimicry" to mean making fun of the colonists by imitating them. Thus. "mimesis" is subverted. In other words, the usual reason for imitating the colonists is to achieve a higher social rank in their system, but in Bhabha's "mimicry", this is reversed. The imitation is now used to portray the coloni

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