I found the following sentence from one of movies that I've watched. Frankly, I cannot understand the grammar points of the sentence. I mean, what is the usage of "to be" in the following sentence and is it feasible to replace "to be" with "is" to get the same meaning?
I know Jack Harper to be a decent man.
In addition, I would really appreciate it if someone could let me know whether the following sentences are grammatically correct or not.
I know Jack Harper is a decent man.
I know Jack Harper was a decent man.
I know Jack Harper have been a decent man.
I know Jack Harper had been a decent man.
I know Jack Harper will be a decent man.
dileepa I know Jack Harper to be a decent man. He has a character of decency. I know Jack Harper is a decent man.
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dileepaI know Jack Harper to be a decent man.
He has a character of decency.
I know Jack Harper is a decent man. (This has nearly the same meaning.)
I know Jack Harper was a decent man. (He is dead now.)
I know Jack Harper have
dileepaI know (that) Jack Harper is a decent man.
I know (that) Jack Harper was a decent man.
I know (that) Jack Harper has been a de