Meaning of the phrase?
''Her relationship to her personal history was no more vexed than her literary past.'' Does the no more than indicate an equality of vexation in here between the personal history and literart history, or does it function in a different way? I keep stumbling upon this phrase and cannot fully comprehend it.
Top answer
When we say "X is no more Y than Z (is)", we usually mean to imply that neither X nor Z has quality Y. In this case, it would mean that neither her relationship to her personal history nor her literary past was vexed. Does that seem to make sense in the context?
- When we say "X is no more Y than Z (is)", we usually mean to imply that neither X nor Z has quality Y.
- In this case, it would mean that neither her relationship to her personal history nor her literary past was vexed.
- Does that seem to make sense in the context?
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When we say "X is no more Y than Z (is)", we usually mean to imply that neither X nor Z has quality Y. In this case, it would mean that neither her relationship to her personal history nor her literary past was vexed. Does that seem to make sense in the context?
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