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Dileepa Posted 7 years ago
Grammar

Meaning of "may have moved"

I found the following sentence from one of a videos I watched. I got two questions while I hearing that. Firstly, we often use apostrophe + s to indicate someones possessions but not things belong to non-living things. However, in this sentence, they have used "city's" to indicate inhabitants of the city. If I had written that sentence, I would have written "residents of the city" instead.


My second question is whey they have used "may have" + past participle without any conditional statements. Though, I know it is feasible to remove the if clause when we can understand it from the context, there is no any such things in the sentence. Furthermore, I would really appreciate it if someone could let me know is there any other circumstance in which we can use "would/might/may have + past participle" without third conditional statements.


The sentence:-

Without its crucial source of water the city's residents may have moved away.


Reference:-

https://youtu.be/QUng-iHhSzU?t=152

  

Top answer

dileepa Firstly, we often use apostrophe + s to indicate someone ' s possessions but not things that belong to non-living things. Correct. This is the usual pattern, but it's not absolutely required in all cases.

  • dileepa Firstly, we often use apostrophe + s to indicate someone ' s possessions but not things that belong to non-living things.
  • Correct.
  • This is the usual pattern, but it's not absolutely required in all cases.
  • dileepa However, in this sentence, they have used "city's" to indicate inhabitants of the city.
  • Yes, as if the residents "belong" to the city.
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1 Answers
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dileepaFirstly, we often use apostrophe + s to indicate someone's possessions but not things that belong to non-living things.

Correct. This is the usual pattern, but it's not absolutely required in all cases.

dileepaHowever, in this sentence,

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