Does the following long sentence imply "while the explicit representation of femininity in completely fetishistic forms can bee read as a way in order to question the conventional definitions of femininity, however, it is always possible that it turns against itself and become the subject of what it is trying to critique"?
Text:
While the flaunting of femininity in its entire fetishistic garb can be read as acting in a performative manner to deconstruct the naturalisation of feminine tropes, it always risks coming up against the edges of its own excesses and falling prey to the accusation of the very thing it sought to critique (Art and Psychoanalysis by Maria Walsh).
Yes, if I understand the both of you right.
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