Meaning

bmojtaba' he's got jokes ' for the third person singular,but we don't say ' I/You's got jokes' for the first & second person singular?

You can figure this out!

I have got jokes; you have got jokes; we have got jokes; they have got jokes.
I've got ...; you've got ...; we've got ...; they've got ...

He has got; she has got
He's got; she

I made a mistake in my post I meant to say' I/You've' Not ' I/You's ' anyways here's the question:
when we say ' he's got jokes ' we're literally saying ' he has gotten jokes' (AmE ) if i am not mistaken,but how come we can remove ' 've ' from ' You've got jokes' and simply say ' You got jokes'

bmojtabawhen we say ' he's got jokes ' we're literally saying ' he has gotten jokes' (AmE )

No. The idiom for possession is 'has got' in both AmE and BrE.

bmojtababut how come we can remove ' 've ' from ' You've got jokes' and simply say ' You got jokes'

I think it's just because the 'v' sound is so weak.

I think y

In the US, "He's got jokes.", is ungrammatical.

You might be trying to say:

He got the joke. (That is, he understood the joke.)

For the other persons, the following are correct:

I/we got the joke. (I/we understood the joke.)

You/you (pl.) got the joke. (You/you pl. understood the joke.)

They got the joke. (They understood the joke.)

AnonymousIn the US, "He's got jokes.", is ungrammatical.

A great many comedians have got a lot of jokes. That in mind, I don't know where you came up with "ungrammatical".

You are imposing a particular interpretation of your own on the words of the OP.

CJ