0
Jack.Dalton Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

Meaning

Hello!

I have the last two doubts:

1. Does "to be overtaken by somebody as" means sth like "to be perceived by somebody as" or is it even used?

2. A cloned boy may never know with whom he was cloned. - is it good?

Thank you. I won't bother you again.
  

Top answer

Dalton 1. Does "to be overtaken by somebody as" means sth like "to be perceived by somebody as" or is it even used? I don't believe that expression is ever used.

  • Dalton 1.
  • Does "to be overtaken by somebody as" means sth like "to be perceived by somebody as" or is it even used?
  • I don't believe that expression is ever used.
  • If you saw it in a sentence somewhere, please show us the sentence.
  • Dalton 2.
Free · every Monday

Get the Weekly English Kit 📬

New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.

4 Answers
0
Jack.Dalton1. Does "to be overtaken by somebody as" means sth like "to be perceived by somebody as" or is it even used?
I don't believe that expression is ever used. If you saw it in a sentence somewhere, please show us the sentence.

Jack.Dalton2. A cloned boy may never know with whom he was cloned. - is it good?
0
(it's about the people who are unwilling to learn English) "If they don't master English, they will be overtaken by other nations as uneducated, outdated and ridiculous." - ..but it's a sentence from this book written by a polish woman so she could have been wrong. (not the first time)
0
"You need 'by whom' or 'from whom' or 'for whom', depending on what you want to say. Otherwise, fine." I think she meant "from whom". Thanks.
0
Jack.DaltonIf they don't master English, they will be overtaken by other nations as uneducated, outdated and ridiculous.
You are right. It should be "will be seen" or "will be perceived" (by other nations as ...). I believe the writer conflated two separate ideas. Either that, or some words were accidentally left out when typing up the manuscript.

Related Questions