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Hanuman_2000 Posted 20 years ago
Grammar

meaning

0Hello,02br
02br
001. I had a lot to eat, but I am still hugry.02br
02br
00What does it mean?02br
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002. Can we wait a few minutes? I don't want to go. (yet/still)02br
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00I have to insert "yet/still" in the sentence.02br
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00a) Can we wait a few minutes? I still don't want to go. 02br
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00b) Can we wait a few minutes? I don't want to go yet. 02br
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00Which one is correct between (a) and (b)?0-
  

Top answer

1blockquote 01cite 10Hanuman_200012cite 101. 12blockquote 10To me it's nonsense. 02br 01blockquote 01cite 10Hanuman_200012cite 10 2.

  • 1blockquote 01cite 10Hanuman_200012cite 101.
  • 12blockquote 10To me it's nonsense.
  • 02br 01blockquote 01cite 10Hanuman_200012cite 10 2.
  • Can we wait a few minutes?
  • I don't want to go.
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12 Answers
0
1blockquote
01cite10Hanuman_200012cite101. I had a lot to eat, but I am still hu11b10n12b10gry.12br
10What does it mean?12blockquote
10To me it's nonsense. It says "I once possessed a lot of food, but I'm still hungry".02br
01blockquote
01cite10Hanuman_200012cite
0
0Hi guys,02br
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01font001. I had a lot to eat, but I am still 01font00hungry02font00.02font02br
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00One meaning of 'to have' is 'to eat or drink'. eg 'I had two beers' or 'I had a hamburger for lunch'. Thus, the meaning here is 'I ate a lot of food, but I am still hungr
0
0 Hi, Clive02br
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00I didn't know you use "I had a lot to eat" in the sense of "I ate a lot". Is it within standard usage of "have a lot to do"?02br
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00paco 0-
0
0I don't think it's the same - you could say "I had a lot of work to do, but I went fishing instead." Almost always, if you "have"something to eat, you not only have it in your possession, you actually eat it. 01i00 02i00"I had" or I had....to eat" means the same as "I ate." ("What did you 01i00have02i00 for lunch? I 01i00had02i
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0 01b02br
01table01tr01td02tr01tr01td
01i00 01b01font00Hanuman_2000 wrote:02font02b02i02td
02br
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01font002. Can we wait a few minutes? I don't want to go. (yet/still)I have to insert "yet/still" in t
0
0 Hello Khoff02br
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00Thank you for the detailed explanation. I know "have" can mean "eat", and "I had lunch" is quite natural to me. But if we take "had" in "I had a lot to eat" in that way, the sentence would be rephrased as "I ate a lot to eat". The expression seems to me to be somehow redundant, though I know I must accept it as a correct English collocation.02br
0
0 01blockquote
01cite10Paco200412cite10Hello Khoff12br
12br
10By the way, can we take it that "I had a lot to V" is always "I actually did the activity of V", no matter what verb the V is?12br
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10paco12blockquote
10Hi Paco2004,02br
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00In my understanding, we can't a
0
0Hi guys,02br
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00Yes, 'I had a lot of work to do' does not necessarily mean that I did it.02br
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01font00(E-x) "Although I had a lot to eat at the party, I didn't eat anything". 02font00This is a cute example, as the first part of the sentence is ambiguous. However, the second part of the sentence dispells th
0
0 Thanks for the nice explanation, Clive. 0-
0
0 Thanks, guys. I'll memorize that usage of "had a lot to V", though I myself wouldn’t use it.02br
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00paco02br
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00[PS] Googlily: "I ate a lot last night" hits 210 pages and "I had a lot to eat last night" 17 pages. 0-

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