1. Our subjects have free will and our mdels may be not applicable.
2. Our subjects have free will and our mdels may not be applicable.
I know sentence 2 is grammatical. How about sentence 1? Is it grammatical?
If it is what the meaning is?
Is "mdels" a typo for "models"? Both sentences are correct grammatically. 2 is probably better than 1, but don´t waste any time on it.
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Is "mdels" a typo for "models"?
Both sentences are correct grammatically. 2 is probably better than 1, but don´t waste any time on it.