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Anonymous Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

May have/might have - why?

Hi you guys,

Apparently it is correct to say: "She might have been to the party" and "He may have treated her badly" - i just can't understand why?
Normally you can't say "She have" (3'rd person + plural = concord error), but why is it you can say it, when you have the modal verb may/might? Grammatically it doens't make sense in my head.

Hope one of you can help me - thanks.

Best regards Rikke.
  

Top answer

Hello, Rikke. Full modal verbs to not inflect (change) with person: I might/may/can/could/will/would/should/etc. You might/may/can/could/will/would/should/etc.

— Mister Micawber

  • Hello, Rikke.
  • Full modal verbs to not inflect (change) with person: I might/may/can/could/will/would/should/etc.
  • You might/may/can/could/will/would/should/etc.
  • She might/may/can/could/will/would/should/etc.
  • We might/may/can/could/will/would/should/etc.
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1 Answers
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Hello, Rikke.

Full modal verbs to not inflect (change) with person:

I might/may/can/could/will/would/should/etc.
You might/may/can/could/will/would/should/etc.
She might/may/can/could/will/would/should/etc.
We might/may/can/could/will/would/should/etc.
They might/may/can/could/will/would/should/etc.
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