?? Many years' experience vs. Many years experience ??

Question

Hi there,I'm a translator, and I've been writing "many years' experience" for - well, for many years. Today, a client asked me if I used the apostrophe because the phrase was a contraction of "many years of experience".I thought it indicated the possessive and promised to do further research. Problem is, Googling the phrase won't work because Google ignores punctuation.Does anyone know, first of all, is this even acceptable usage? If so, am I using the possessive or a contraction?The reason why this is important is that the client doesn't want me to use contractions in this particular text. As it is a marketing text, the phrase pops up everywhere. I'd have to go back to do some revising if the use of the apostrophe is incorrect.I'd also be grateful for any pointers on standard grammars written for writers who have little or no interest in deep-structure linguistics or Saussure. You know, something I can put on my desk and use as a reference when it's midnight and I need someone to tell me exactly where to put that *** comma.Thanks in advance,Damian

Usenet · Accepted Answer

[nq:1]Hi there, I'm a translator, and I've been writing "many years' experience" for - well, for many years. Today, a ... Googling the phrase won't work because Google ignores punctuation. Does anyone know, first of all, is this even acceptable usage?[/nq]
Yes it is. No question.
[nq:1]If so, am I using the possessive or a contraction?[/nq]
You are using the English genitive plural. The term "possessive" is often used as a substitue for "genitive," but the English genitive covers a lot more ground than simple possession. (Consider "my wife." Do you own her?) Years don't literally "possess" experience, but they can have an analogous relationship, and the genitive form indicates that relationship.
[nq:1]The reason why this is important is that the client doesn't want me to use contractions in this particular text.[/nq]
It is most assuredly not a contraction. Apostrophes can be used to indicate the omission of one letter or more in a single word representing a merger of two or more words. This gives us such forms as "'tis" and "can't". They can also represent letters dropped from the end of a word, as in "drinkin'". But you can't use an apostrophe to indicate the omission of an entire word ("of" in your example, and in fact there is no requirement for "of" to be there in the first place), let alone attach it to the word preceding the space left by the omitted word. So "years'" cannot be a contraction. Ever.
[nq:1]As it is a marketing text, the phrase pops up everywhere. I'd have to go back to do some revising if the use of the apostrophe is incorrect.[/nq]
It's not incorrect. You will probably hear from other posters that omission of the apostrophe isn't incorrect either. I'm not sure I agree. But since I find the form with the apostrophe preferable, and since that form is indisputably correct, I'd stick with it if I were in your situation.
[nq:1]I'd also be grateful for any pointers on standard grammars written for writers who have little or no interest in ... as a reference when it's midnight and I need someone to tell me exactly where to put that *** comma.[/nq]
There's always The Elements of Grammar* by Margaret Scherzer, about ten bucks in paperback. You can sometimes get it in a discount package deal with the notorious Strunk and White (*The Elements of Style*). A more lighthearted look, but with less coverage than Scherzer, is Patricia O'Conner's *Woe is I.
Or you can post here and get a wide variety of opinions, sometimes even a correct one.

Bob Lieblich
One man's opinion

Usenet · Answer

Robert is correct in every particular, including the suspicion that some wrong-headed people will tell you the apostrophe is not needed.

Another resource for grammar and punctuation advice that's easy to use is http://ccc.commnet.edu/grammar/ It's not perfect nothing is but it's large, and covers many questions very well. I couldn't find an answer to this question there, though.
Carter
Carter Jefferson
http://carterj.homestead.com/

Usenet · Answer

I always assumed that the s-apostrophe in "years' " is more correct. The reason is does not often appear is that (a) that the apostrophe is often misunderstood and perhaps for that reason (b) it is falling out of fashion.

Oxford English (p.47) states that
"expressions such as
a fortnight's holiday
your money's worth
two weeks' holiday
contain possessives and SHOULD (my caps) have apostrophes correctly placed."

Therefore "many years' experience" is perfectly correct.
Colin
London UK

?? Many years' experience vs. Many years experience ??

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