Make and have ?

Question

Could someone explain me if I make and have are interchangeable in the following sentence?
"Dr. Phil made us type up our reports"
"Dr. Phil had us type up our reports"
They are causative verbs in this sentence.
Thank you.

BarbaraPA · Accepted Answer

The first implies (somewhat) that you didn't want to do this but he forced you.

Untoldpain · Answer

thanks but how about the second one then? any suggestion.
Thanks.

Danny2312 · Answer

The first one means Dr. Phil makes the students type up their report, which means they type the report against their will and solely to satisfy his requirement.

The second one means almost the same, but it does not significantly imply that the students are forced to type the report. It could mean they're forced to type the report, but it could also mean Dr. Phil asks them to type the report, and they do it willingly.

CalifJim · Answer

untoldpainCould someone explain ~~me if I~~ whether "make" and "have" are interchangeable in the following sentence?

They are not.

had is more general and vague than made.

Dr. Phil may have
coaxed us, encouraged us, pleaded with us, begged us, arranged for us, asked us, ordered us, commanded us, or forced us

to type up our reports.
If the result was that we did what he wanted, he had us type up our reports. It doesn't matter which method he used.

If we say that he made us type up our reports, then he more or less ordered us to do it. He insisted on it. It's not as strong as "forced us", but it's a little like that.

CJ

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