Hello, everyone. I have a question.
Regarding the following two sentences:
(A) Once Tom makes a decision, he never changes it.
(B) Once Tom makes his mind, he never changes it.
Are they both correct? I'm wondering if "it" in the second clause can represent the noun "(a) decision" or "(his) mind" in each sentence.
I would prefer "has made", but I wouldn't say "makes" is actually wrong. (A) Once Tom has made a decision, he never changes it. ("it" = a decision) (B) Once Tom has made up his mind, he never changes it.
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I would prefer "has made", but I wouldn't say "makes" is actually wrong.
(A) Once Tom has made a decision, he never changes it.
("it" = a decision)
(B) Once Tom has made up his mind, he never changes it.
("it" = his mind. I have just the faintest misgivings about this sentence -- about whether it is messing with fixed idioms -- but I think most people would accept i