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Anonymous Posted 16 years ago
Grammar

Last night

Hi, Morning everyone.

1. The bridge has broken after last night's storm.

2. The bridge has broken after the storm last night.

To me, the first underlined is Ok and fine because 'last night' modifies storm. However the second underlined seems a bit ungrammatical because a noun (night) follows a noun Emotion: storm directly.

To me, 'after the storm last night' is an adjunct in this sentence, and 'last night' is a noun phrase in relation to the storm.

Do you advise me to put "at" between them?
The bridge has broken after the storm at last night.

Thank you for your precious advice.
  

Top answer

Anonymous 1. The bridge has broken after last night's storm. 2.

  • Anonymous 1.
  • The bridge has broken after last night's storm.
  • 2.
  • The bridge has broken after the storm last night.
  • Both of these are fine, except I would use the passive past: The bridge was broken...
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9 Answers
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Anonymous1. The bridge has broken after last night's storm.
2. The bridge has broken after the storm last night.
Both of these are fine, except I would use the passive past:
The bridge was broken...

The second is very common and colloquial. "Last night" is an adverb (phrase) of time.

The placement of adverbs is flexible. These
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You cannot put 'at' there. Bridges 'collapse', and simple past is called for: The bridge collapsed after last night's storm / after the storm last night. There is nothing else wrong with #1 or #2. In #2, 'last night' might be a verbless clause: 'after the storm [that occurred] last night'.
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They're both fine.

The second would be the choice in casual conversation. The possessive, and the double-s make #1 a bit of work.

The time factor is interesting. "After the storm" seems to suggest that one event followed the other rather closely.
In the first example, the "has" seems to take command, suggesting that the storm is the cause, but that the breaking has take
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Thank everyone for the valueable advice.

After reading all the replies, some ideas came into my mind.

1. The bridge collapsed after the storm last night.

(This sentence seems that all events, both the collapse and the storm, happened last night. During the night, the storm happened first and the collapse ensued. This is because the "last night" modifies th
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To #1, I say 'No'. If the bridge collapsed last night, to be clear you would write 'The bridge collapsed last night after the storm'. #1 does not make clear when the bridge collapsed, though we presume it followed fast on the storm.

To #2, I say no, as the collapse remains an event of the past, thrown there by its proximity to the storm in the text. the sentence sounds odd. Only in a
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Mister MicawberIn #2, 'last night' might be a verbless clause: 'after the storm [that occurred] last night'.

Thank you.

A verbless clause is quite a new thing to me. Nonetheless, I agree with you after second thought because the "last night" is an adverb to the storm and there cannot be any preposition in front of it.

You are great.
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Hi,
I just want to toss in my 2 cents on the sentences.
Anonymous1. The bridge has broken after last night's storm.
2. The bridge has broken after the storm last night.
To be grammatically correct, the bridge couldn't have damaged itself, so " has broken " is technically wrong, and "
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dimsumexpressI would say " the bridge has been damaged by the storm last night
I have trouble with this version. To my ear, there's a serious time conflict (which would be relieved somewhat by your alternate version).
The present perfect indicates that the act was committed in the very recent past.
"Last night" seems relatively remote in time, impl
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Hi Avangi,
Thank you for your comments. I am just thinking out loud, so pardon me if I have repeated myself.

Each version of the sentence is our way of interpretating the incident . Actually, I wrote mine from the "news" persepctive as reported by the anchor of the news cast. I am willing to wager a beer to say that it would be unlikely to hear a news anchor use the phrase "

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