0
Liveinsea Posted 17 years ago
Grammar
"John bought a book for Mary" and "John bought Mary a book"?
(1A): John bought a book for Mary, but then decided to keep it.
(1B): John bought a book for Mary, but Mary lost it.
(2A): John bought Mary a book, but Mary lost it.
(2B): John bought Mary a book, but then decided to keep it.
I think (1A) and (2A) sound more natural than (1B) and (2B) respectively. If so, then there must be a subtle difference between (3A)“John bought a book for Mary” and (4A)“John bought Mary a book” in terms of meaning. (4A) has the implication that the book had already been transferred to Mary, while (3A) doesn’t.
Am I right?
Thank you!
(1B): John bought a book for Mary, but Mary lost it.
(2A): John bought Mary a book, but Mary lost it.
(2B): John bought Mary a book, but then decided to keep it.
I think (1A) and (2A) sound more natural than (1B) and (2B) respectively. If so, then there must be a subtle difference between (3A)“John bought a book for Mary” and (4A)“John bought Mary a book” in terms of meaning. (4A) has the implication that the book had already been transferred to Mary, while (3A) doesn’t.
Am I right?
Thank you!
Top answer
There is no 3a or 4a, but I suppose I understand your intention. There is no such difference in meaning. e.
- There is no 3a or 4a, but I suppose I understand your intention.
- There is no such difference in meaning.
- e.
- that Mary was originally to buy the book.
- #2a, b sound more 'natural' to me.
Get the Weekly English Kit 📬
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
5 Answers
0
There is no 3a or 4a, but I suppose I understand your intention.
There is no such difference in meaning. The only possible ambiguity (in #1a, b) is that John bought the book on Mary's behalf, i.e. that Mary was originally to buy the book. #2a, b sound more 'natural' to me.
There is no such difference in meaning. The only possible ambiguity (in #1a, b) is that John bought the book on Mary's behalf, i.e. that Mary was originally to buy the book. #2a, b sound more 'natural' to me.
00
Liveinsea(3A)“John bought a book for Mary” and (4A)“John bought Mary a book” ... (4A) has the implication that the book had already been transferred to Mary, while (3A) doesn’t.Setting aside the alternate meaning mentioned by Mr. M. (that 3A can mean that John bought a book because Mary requested him to buy it), 3A and 4A are the same in terms of whether the
00
Hi
There's really very little difference, but I'd use 2A and 2b because the first clause in each is more compact.
Forget any implication you may perceive about the book having been already transferred to Mary. There is no semantic indication whatsoever of that.
Best
Bill J
There's really very little difference, but I'd use 2A and 2b because the first clause in each is more compact.
Forget any implication you may perceive about the book having been already transferred to Mary. There is no semantic indication whatsoever of that.
Best
Bill J
00
Hello, Liveinsea,
as the other contributors have pointed out, the difference in meaning is non-existent, at least this can be resumed after a substitution test:
John bought Mary a book/John bought a book for Mary, but hasn't presented it to her yet.
However, there are indeed grounds for a certain extent of ambiguity considering the fact that for can mean either
as the other contributors have pointed out, the difference in meaning is non-existent, at least this can be resumed after a substitution test:
John bought Mary a book/John bought a book for Mary, but hasn't presented it to her yet.
However, there are indeed grounds for a certain extent of ambiguity considering the fact that for can mean either
00
Related Questions