I've/I'd

Question

I have been told different.  VSI had been told different.What's the difference?  Don't both of them mean that something was said in the past?

Toms Mathew · Accepted Answer

Hi,

One is near past where as the other is long ago.

Wait for other posts too.

Thanks.

Mr Wordy · Answer

"have" usually implies that the disagreement or debate is still current. Occasionally it may merely be asserting that such a thing occurred on one or more occasions in the past.

In the usual sense of the past perfect, "had" looks back from one point in the past (point 1) to another, earlier point (point 2) when you were told the thing. Point 1 is typically the point at which the issue was resolved, which could be in the distant or recent past (perhaps even as recently as the last statement of someone you are talking to). So, the end result is that "had" often implies that the issue is now resolved (for example, you are conceding that the other person is correct). However, "had" may also sometimes be used as an alternative to "has" in order to "soften" the statement, even while not actually conceding, so as to not appear to be directly contradicting someone.

To me, the formally correct version is "I have been told differently", but this may be a matter of opinion. In any case, your version is fine in everyday speech.

I've/I'd

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