I've or I've been

Question

Which is correct if you are still drinking now, without adding or removing any words :I've been drinking for 8 hoursI've drunk for two hours?

AlpheccaStars · Accepted Answer

I've been drinking for 8 hours.

Anonymous · Answer

Thanks, can you tell me why ?

Anonymous · Answer

Yes can anyone explain why ?

Nakato · Answer

I'm just learning English but I think 'been' is used ther because it involves time. (8 hours) Not sure tho..

Manifon · Answer

i've been drinking for 8 hours is correct answer because it is the action going on ,so it should be used in present continous and for and since are words commonly used in present perfect continuous

Dimsumexpress · Answer

Chances are, a native would not choose to say "I have drunk for 8 hours" to mean the drinking was going on for that duration of time. "Have been drinking...." is the only form considered correct. "Been" implies action ongoing up to the point of the speaking. I have been home all day - implies at the time of my speaking, I did not change my clothes to get out of my house. I have been studying English for 10 years. "Been" serves the reason, Although, I have studied English for 10 years may be the alternative. So anytime when "been" is used, it really meant "the immediate present".

Anonymous · Answer

_{Thansk for your replies. However I am a bit confused because it is OK to say "I've lived here for 2 years" or "I've worked here for two years" which is also an action that is still ongoing in the present.}

I think part of the answer might be that "working" and "living" are verbs that describe your state rather than a specific action that you have been performing - what do you think ?

p.s. to the second poster if someone walked in on me in a bar I would say "I've been drinking for 4 hours " not "I've drunk for 4 hours" - I am also a native speaker and am well aquainted with the rules as they are laid out in most textbooks - I am just trying to work out how to explain this slightly grey area to my students.

Dimsumexpress · Answer

AnonymousThansk for your replies. However I am a bit confused because it is OK to say "I've lived here for 2 years" or "I've worked here for two years" which is also an action that is still ongoing in the present.

That was the point I tried to make. Very often, ESL learners are confused about the rules and the exceptions but present percect, among other rules. I have worked ( or been working) for XYZ for two years and I haven't got a dime for a raise! In this context, either form is good, and the question is often why? In my opinion, the present perfect continuous emphasizes a more immediate time than the simply perfect. But that's my take. As for the "have drunk ...." usage, I suppose no one would be drinking for two years.

AlpheccaStars · Answer

AnonymousI've been drinking for 8 hours
I've drunk for two hours

I've been drinking for 8 hours.

This is an idiomatic form of "drink" which means "to consume alcoholic beverages."

"Drunk" is the state of inebriation. It is not correct to say: I've drunk for two hours.

If you say this, native speakers would think you made a mistake (which is to be expected under the circumstances

) and intended to say: "I've been drunk for two hours."

If you add an object, it is acceptable, but still not quite natural. If you change the time marker it becomes more natural.

I've drunk water for two hours and I'm still dehydrated.

I've drunk liquor my whole life and never once got drunk.

I've or I've been

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