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Moon7296 Posted 15 years ago
Essay & Composition Writing

I've not met a nicer man than him/ he

1. I've not met a nicer man than him.

2. I've not met a nicer man than he

Do you think #2 is also possible? like...I've not met a nicer man than he (is a nicer man)
  

Top answer

#1 is common and discouraged by many grammarians in formal situations. #2 is sometimes suggested by the same grammarians for that register, but regarded as hypercorrection by others. The best, easiest and wisest solution for both informal and formal uses is simply to add the verb: I've not met a nicer man than he is.

— Mister Micawber

  • #1 is common and discouraged by many grammarians in formal situations.
  • #2 is sometimes suggested by the same grammarians for that register, but regarded as hypercorrection by others.
  • The best, easiest and wisest solution for both informal and formal uses is simply to add the verb: I've not met a nicer man than he is.
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13 Answers
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#1 is common and discouraged by many grammarians in formal situations.

#2 is sometimes suggested by the same grammarians for that register, but regarded as hypercorrection by others.

The best, easiest and wisest solution for both informal and formal uses is simply to add the verb:

I've not met a nicer man than he is.
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Without 'is' #2 is still OK but with 'is' makes #2 both informal and formal?
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No. Without 'is', #2 is questionable.
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1. It affected the others more than me.

2. It affected the others more than I.

Q1) Like you answered above, does #2 sound better with am?: 3. It affected the others more than I am?

Q2) Does this makes sense?: 4. It affected the others more than I affected the others.
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Q1) Like you answered above, does #2 sound better with am?: 3. It affected the others more than I am? -- No. I would use 'than it did/has me'– but yes, I always try to make such an extension in my own writing.

Q2) Does this makes sense?: 4. It affected the others more than I affected the others.-- It makes sense, of course, but it is not natu
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Q1) Then #2 itself is questionable? or still makes sense?

Q2) Do you 'always try to make such an extension('than it did/has me')' because without the extension, the sentence may read differently?

Q3) Actually, in #4, I intended a meaning different from #2. I wanted to say It affected the others. I affected the others more. So if I combine those
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Q1) Then #2 itself is questionable? or still makes sense?-- In context, it would probably make sense; as it stands, it is perplexing.


Q2) Do you 'always try to make such an extension('than it did/has me')' because without the extension, the sentence may read differently?-- Either that, or it sounds syntactically questionable. I'm a real chicken.

Q3) Actuall
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Thank you for a series of your answers.

Regarding Q3), since you said #4 is unnatural because of the repetition of 'affected the others', what is a natural way to express the context: It affected the others and I affected the others more.
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No. I already gave it to you: It affected the others more than I did.
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Ah.. I got it.. I didn't know 'It affected the others more than I did' is the answer of my previous question.

Then It affected the others more than me is obviously different, isn't it?

Doesn't it mean It affected the others more than it affected me?

If so, is it natural to say?(Like you said you extend for clarity, adding the underline('it aff
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