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New2grammar Posted 19 years ago
Grammar

I've come to learn

How is 'I've come to learn' different from 'I've learned'?

I have seen it many times and to avoid confusion, I always mentally replace it with 'I've learned'. Please tell me whether I've been doing the right thing.
  

Top answer

' infers that this was achieved over a very long time period and wasn't part of a deliberate process. I've come to appreciate that....

  • ' infers that this was achieved over a very long time period and wasn't part of a deliberate process.
  • I've come to appreciate that....
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5 Answers
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'I've come to...' infers that this was achieved over a very long time period and wasn't part of a deliberate process. I've come to learn that....I've come to appreciate that....
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come to : implies arriving by chance
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Marius, does it really mean 'by chance' as in coincidence?

I interpret what Nona said as involving some struggle or effort and not by pure luck, though they are all time consuming.
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To me "come to" is simply "become". It signals the beginning of the action of the verb, the "taking effect", so to speak.

We can use become with adjectives: became tired, became knowledgeable, became rich
But not with verbs: *became to learn, *became to appreciate, *became to know
So come is used with verbs instead: came to l
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- "This is the main text I've learned." means "This is the main text I've ALREADY learned and know about it now."

- "The is the main text I've come to learn." means "This is the main text I being to learn."

"Have learned" is older than "have come to learn".

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