How is 'I've come to learn' different from 'I've learned'?
I have seen it many times and to avoid confusion, I always mentally replace it with 'I've learned'. Please tell me whether I've been doing the right thing.
Top answer
' infers that this was achieved over a very long time period and wasn't part of a deliberate process. I've come to appreciate that....
— Nona the brit
' infers that this was achieved over a very long time period and wasn't part of a deliberate process.
I've come to appreciate that....
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'I've come to...' infers that this was achieved over a very long time period and wasn't part of a deliberate process. I've come to learn that....I've come to appreciate that....
To me "come to" is simply "become". It signals the beginning of the action of the verb, the "taking effect", so to speak.
We can use become with adjectives: became tired, became knowledgeable, became rich But not with verbs: *became to learn, *became to appreciate, *became to know So come is used with verbs instead: came to l