When you use "It is up to~", I understand that it's usually followed by a person/people or something concerns with human. (e.g. government, state, school, etc. etc.)
Is it okay for one to use above expression followed by a common non human object(s)?
e.g. The result is up to the timing of the election. It's up to the result of the election. It's up to the music we listen to. It's up to the nature of the sentence preceding.
My instinct tells me yes (by a wide margin). But some of my colleagues insist otherwise.
Top answer
For me, it's a no. " implies some active control over the outcome by the participant. "
— Lil' Ruby Rose
For me, it's a no.
" implies some active control over the outcome by the participant.
"
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For me, it's a no. "It's up to..." implies some active control over the outcome by the participant. In all your examples, I would say "It depends on..."
Thank you Barbara. So I guess it's an issue of where you draw a line regarding whether or not enough human element is implemented.
It sounds a little bit too complicated for me to determine that and use the expression with confidence though. As in my last example of the first set of sentences, "the nature of the sentence" is obviously determined by a person who use it. So what's
Nope, not convincing at all, because I know I make it frequently (and always roll my eyes at myself when I find it later), and my huge amount of pride couldn't stand the thought of you making it less often than I do.
I agree that in "it's up to the Anti-war movement to ....." it refers to the people in the anti-war movement, and it's "up to them" -- it's their responsibility, or their prerogative, to do whatever the rest of the sentence talks about.
However---
I think in "It's up to its old tricks," we have a completely different meaning of "up to" ! The
Thank you khoff. That makes so much sense. I should have known that since I am a kind of person who is always up to no good. (As my teacher used to tell me).