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Catttt Posted 8 years ago
Grammar

Its own lack of compensation

Does "its own lack of compensation" mean:

1. the fact that it is not going to pay any compensation to the survivers


or


2. the fact that the compensation they had paid to the survivors was not actually enough


Context:

In this interview, on December 3, 2004, “Jude Finisterra,” in reality Yes Man Bichlbaum/Servin, stated that Dow had decided to compensate the Bhopal community fully for the disaster through liquidation of the UCC, worth approximately 12 billion US dollars. In the few hours’ before Dow was able to issue a statement refuting this misrepresentation as a hoax, its share price fell 4.2 percent on a European exchange. The debunking statement from Dow—that it would not compensate victims of this disaster in what would have been an appropriate way—was featured prominently on a number of mainstream online news sites like Google throughout the day that marked the anniversary of the disaster. Thus Dow was forced to foreground its own lack of compensation on this critical day, and the Yes Men were successful in generating negative publicity against the corporation, perhaps with the idea of shaming this entity into an adequate settlement with survivors in
Bhopal.

  

Top answer

The phrase sounds like the writer means #1, but the context indicates he means #2, It would be better to say Thus D:ow was forced to foreground its own lack of adequat e compensation

  • The phrase sounds like the writer means #1, but the context indicates he means #2, It would be better to say Thus D:ow was forced to foreground its own lack of adequat e compensation
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1 Answers
0

The phrase sounds like the writer means #1, but the context indicates he means #2,

It would be better to say

Thus D:ow was forced to foreground its own lack of adequate compensation

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