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Rpsh Posted 12 years ago
Grammar

It's no use

We say ' it's interesting to learn English' and also say ' it's interesting learning English'. But when we say ‘ it's no use balabala', we just say ' it's no use doing'. And there is no usage of ' it's no use to do sth'. So is it the unique and special usage of 'it's no use'? Or there are a lot of suchlike usages. Are there any rules among these words?
  

Top answer

rpsh And there is no usage of ' it's no use to do sth' Many people say this, though the '-ing' form is certainly more standard. to feel that to know what one is doing with life, it is no use to consult authorities. It is precisely through the veils which authorities have spun.

— Mister Micawber

  • rpsh And there is no usage of ' it's no use to do sth' Many people say this, though the '-ing' form is certainly more standard.
  • to feel that to know what one is doing with life, it is no use to consult authorities.
  • It is precisely through the veils which authorities have spun.
  • rpsh Or there are a lot of suchlike usages.
  • Are there any rules among these words?
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10 Answers
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rpsh And there is no usage of ' it's no use to do sth'
Many people say this, though the '-ing' form is certainly more standard.

...to feel that to know what one is doing with life, it is no use to consult authorities. It is precisely through the veils which authorities have spun...
rpshOr there are a lot of suchlike usag
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rpshAnd there is no usage of ' it's no use to do sth'
I went out of town for two weeks and my plants got no water. It's (of) no use to water them now; they are practically dead.

Here are some patterns with the to-infinitive. This is an example of a postmodifier for an abstract noun.
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Does it mean that there is no limitation of the usage of 'it's no use+'? It's very flexible in the daily life.
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If I use this usage in a exam e.g. TOEFL, I wouldn't be marked wrong, right?
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rpshDoes it mean that there is no limitation of the usage of 'it's no use+'? It's very flexible in the daily life.
What kind of limitation do you foresee? I don't understand the thrust of your concern.
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rpshDoes it mean that there is no limitation of the usage of 'it's no use+'? It's very flexible in the daily life.
The American Corpus gives 33 citations of the infinitive following "no use" and 320 citations of the gerund following "no use".
So the -ing usage is 10 times more frequent than the infinitive usage. That does not mean that "it's no use to wat
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rpshIf I use this usage in a exam e.g. TOEFL, I wouldn't be marked wrong, right?
No. Whenever a singular word begins with a vowel sound, you should use the indefinite article an, please.
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Actually, I don't know the accurate limitation of the usage. The textbooks is talking about that you can use 'it' to substitute the infinitive or gerund subject when the subject is too long and there is such usage of 'it no use to do sth'. I think the writer is just take it as an example and there are more suchlike words or more rules for words. So I ask this question. Yet now, I think I have no n
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What a scientific spirit! I got it, thank you!
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Got it, thank you so much.
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