1) He asked for a book by Dickens and I am going to give it to him.
Is it possible that he did not specify which book by Dickens he wants?
Could '1' be used instead of:
2) He asked for a book by Dickens and I am going to give him one.
In '2' it is obvious that he didn't ask for a specific book.
Gratefully,
Navi.
Is it possible that he did not specify which book by Dickens he wants? Probably not, because of 'it'. navitasan Could '1' be used instead of:2) He asked for a book by Dickens and I am going to give him one.
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navitasan1) He asked for a book by Dickens and I am going to give it to him.Is it possible that he did not specify which book by Dickens he wants?
Probably not, because of 'it'.
navitasanCould '1' be used instead of:2) He asked for a book by Dickens and I am going to give him one.
Only by mistake.
I don't think 1) can be called wrong - just unusual. Grammatically "a book" is definitely an "it," but "it" would usually be used when referring to a specific book, e.g., "He asked for the book by Dickens, and I am going to give it to him."